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Football Officiating => NCAA Discussion => Topic started by: Baseball on September 08, 2013, 06:37:10 PM
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A kicks off from A-35. At the A-47, A-2 steps OB at the A-47, leaps in the air, controls the ball while airborne and A. Throws it backwards to a team-mate at the A-43 or B. Throws it forward to a team-mate
at the 50.
A-2 lands OB after releasing the ball. His original contact with the ball is in the air beyond the sideline.
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A) Can't answer this without knowing where and when A-2 lands. If he lands out of bounds (and never subsequently returns) or lands after the team mate has possessed the ball, this is a legal play, as A-2 never returned inbounds and he was not out of bounds when he legally batted the ball.
B) This is easier, batting a kick forward is a foul. Basic spot, so rekick from the A-25.
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A) Can't answer this without knowing where and when A-2 lands. If he lands out of bounds (and never subsequently returns) or lands after the team mate has possessed the ball, this is a legal play, as A-2 never returned inbounds and he was not out of bounds when he legally batted the ball.
I know it makes a difference if A2 lands out of bounds with the ball, but does it make a difference whether he lands OB before a teammate has possessed the ball?
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I know it makes a difference if A2 lands out of bounds with the ball, but does it make a difference whether he lands OB before a teammate has possessed the ball?
The down ends the instant the teammate possesses the ball. If A2 lands inbounds after this, he did not return inbounds during the down.