I'm not sure of the exact date, but the "Gladiatorial Games" were universally declared illegal long ago. Never mid "bone-jarring, gut-rearranging (clean) hard hits", this foul was deliberate, intentional and AFTER THE BALL HIT THE GROUND and would clearly fit the colloquial description of a "CHEAP SHOT". The immediately following gesture, in and of itself, earned a disqualification.
We "Reap what we Sow" and that crew is very fortunate it didn't wind up presiding over a nasty riot.
So can we all agree that this particular hit - irrespective of the context (ball hit the ground, defenseless, etc.) - talking about nothing but the hit itself - is not flagrant. Can we all agree on that?
Because if we can, then a lot of us have a wrong definition of flagrant.
ARTICLE 3. A flagrant personal foul is illegal physical contact so extreme or deliberate that it places an opponent in danger of catastrophic injury.
No mention of whether or not the hit is legal, illegal, after the whistle, or anything else. If that hit is legal in other contexts, it cannot by definition be flagrant. As in the example video I posted, there is never a scenario when stomping someone's junk is going to be a legitimate football action. That to me is what makes it flagrant.
(And yes, I am aware that the definition specifies 'illegal physical contact' but the point remains, if it's a clean hit in other contexts, it can't be flagrant even in a foul situation.
JMO.