Roughing the Passer by "Offense?"

[clearwall]

I should probably have a cup of coffay before I start to think in the morning because this one popped into my head as I was getting ready for work: "Is there ever a scenario where you can have, or has anyone ever actually penalized, roughing the passer against the offensive team? Here's the situation I was thinking about:

2/10 B30. A10 drops back to pass and throws to the B20 where the ball is intercepted by LB B57. Knowing that he is a slow runner, he decides to throw a backwards pass across the field to his CB B2 who advances the ball to the A32 where he is tackled. B57, after throwing the pass does not move to block, run, etc.  but 1 second after he releases the ball, he is blasted by A69 and driven into the ground. Could you potentially tack on 15 for this?

The rule 9-1-9 states in the first few words that "Ne DEFENSIVE player shall charge into a passer...when it is obvious the ball has been thrown." After the INT, the offensive and defensive tags would switch sides, correct?

[TXMike]

If memory serves, a situation much like ths was posed to RR after we heard of the rule change.  His response was the change was made to protect the passer who had just barely crossed the line of scrimmage before being hit.  It was not intended to protect Team B.

[clearwall]

I was kind of thinking the response would be something like that. Yeah, technically it COULD BE illegal, but you would never actually call it.

[Andrew McCarthy]

Still only applies to a forward pass.

[Reverend30]

HOWEVER, I think there's discretion here to have a personal foul:

9-1-12-b:  No player shall run into or throw himself against an opponent obviously out
of the play either before or after the ball is dead.

If it's a true "one second" after the pass has been thrown, he may be defenseless and "obviously out of the play".

[NVFOA_Ump]

I'd agree with Rev30 here.  If the hit on the "passer" comes after he clearly is no longer the runner, and he is now obviously out of the play based on our judgment, we could call a PF based on the level of contact.

[JasonTX]

To continue with with what NVFOA_Ump posted, we also need to make sure to remember that if you flag this for a personal foul that it will not be added to the end of the play, but instead it will be added to the end of the related run, which in this play would be from the spot of the backwards pass.

[Kalle]

Depending whether or not B2 has caught the ball by the time the foul occurs. If he has caught the ball, the penalty will be enforced from the end of B2's run.

[clearwall]

If yall can come up with a better example of a situation where you COULD call this, let me know. I was asking more for "could this happen and if so, when" sort of thing, so if you can think of something...

[Rulesman]

Off the subject, but I saw a play last week that will make you think. QB A10 throws a legal forward pass that is batted in the air by B77. A10 catches the batted ball and is immediately tackled by B55. Roughing the passer? I think not...

[wingnut]

If yall can come up with a better example of a situation where you COULD call this, let me know. I was asking more for "could this happen and if so, when" sort of thing, so if you can think of something...

It is not possible to have roughing the passer after a backward pass.  The passer is the player who thows a forward pass.  2-27-5

[clearwall]

Thanks wingnut, very good find.

[Hawkeye]

First, let's assume that the play included a forward pass by team B after the COP.  If you have roughing the passer after a COP, then the pass is an illegal pass, so the roughing the passer would put us into a "clean hands" situation potentially (10-1-4 exception).

2 scenarios:
1. Team B did not foul prior to gaining possession - they decline team A's penalty and have their illegal pass penalty enforced. Result: team B's ball.

2. Team B fouled prior to gaining possession - "clean hands" not applicable. Result: offsetting fouls replay the down.

In either case you will not be marking off 15 yards for the roughing.